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  • From: "Mark D. Nanos" <nanosmd AT home.com>
  • To: Corpus-paul <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Autonomasia
  • Date: Fri, 03 Aug 2001 08:35:17 -0500


Jim,
Thank you for this clarification. This is a very useful approach.

[you write]
> "Circumcision" seems to refer to a specific act that could have occurred or
> might have been urged upon some members of the congregation. It is an
> illustration of "works of the Law." The one place I can think of where
> circumcision could function as a figure is in Gal 2: 12b, "those from the
> circumcision." In that I agree with your comment above.

I am working on an article on the Antioch Incident, so this is what I had in
mind in my question. This phrase functions as a label, but is kind of odd
unless seen somewhat along the line you note. It seems to me to have to do
with emphasizing their advocacy of proselyte conversion, not that they are
circumcised, for so too are all of the Jewish people involved in the
narrative. So too it is unlikely that they are especially identified as
advocating circumcision of Jewish newborn boys, which is not at issue, but
rather, of gentiles, the rhetorical audience. So the "ones EK circumcision"
here is figurative for ones advocating proselyte conversion. It has to do
with advocating a change of status for the gentile participants.

"Works of law," on the other hand, is a figure in v. 16 relating to the
Jewish participants, if they should discriminate against gentiles on this
basis, which is implied in Peter's obsequious response to the "ones for
proselyte conversion" of these gentiles. Gentiles do not do works of law
anyway, they are not identified as law-people, unless and until they
complete the rite, i.e., are circumcised (if male).

>
> We shouldn't automatically assume that "those sent by James" and "those from
> the circumcision" are synonymous. I think it likely that the appearance of
> the ambassadors from James emboldened the circumcision faction already
> present in Antioch. The phrase could refer to those seeking to proselytize.
> However, within the context of the argument in Galatians, I think Paul is
> arguing against undergoing the ritual act of circumcision itself. So the
> word does not consistently function like a figure in the same way the phrase
> "works of the Law" does.
>
> Am I making sense or is my thinking muddled?

Thanks. Very helpful. I do agree very much, and have written at some length
on why the "certain ones from James" (note, not "sent by," but "came from")
and "the ones for circumcision" are probably not the same interest groups.
If and how they interact is a very interesting topic for discussion. I do
not understand what the ritual act of circumcision represents in Galatians
apart from completing proselyte conversion, however. Do you?

Regards,
Mark
--
Mark D. Nanos, Ph.D.
313 NE Landings Dr.
Lee's Summit, MO 64064
USA
nanosmd AT home.com






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