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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 44:24

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  • From: Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>
  • To: Rolf Furuli <rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 44:24
  • Date: Sat, 28 Sep 2013 06:37:26 -0400

I find this statement rather...incredible. What it tells us is how the
translator, involved in both linguistic communities, conceptualized the
verbs. In Isaiah 44:24 we have him rendering with both present substantive
participles and aorist main verbs. I don't think we can ignore this, and how
the ancient translators (especially the LXX and Jerome) rendered these has to
inform our own theories with regard to Hebrew verbs. The fact that there is
not a "one-to-one correspondence" is in itself an important datum.

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Sent from my iPad
Personal opinions expressed in this email do not reflect any institution with
which I may be affiliated

>
> RF: There is not a one-to-one correspondence between the Hebrew verb forms
> of the Tanakh and the Greek verb forms in the LXX. Therefore, in my
> opinion, the use of verbs in the LXX tells us nothing about the meaning of
> the verbs in the Hebrew text.




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