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  • From: Ken Penner <kpenner AT stfx.ca>
  • To: C L <sigebryht AT yahoo.com>, "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 44:24
  • Date: Fri, 27 Sep 2013 08:46:14 -0300

Recognizing again that this is about Greek rather than Hebrew, I mention the following article only because of the appeal to Stan Porter’s Verbal Aspect in the Greek of the New Testament.

Steve Runge has identified “foundational errors in Stan Porter’s theoretical framework that significantly undermine the validity of his claims regarding the Greek verb.” See

http://www.ntdiscourse.org/2013/08/porters-use-of-contrastive-substitution/

 

This is relevant for Hebrew to the extent that Hebrew grammarians use Greek to illustrate or provide parallels for the Hebrew verbal system.

 

 

Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.

Associate Professor, Religious Studies

2329 Notre Dame Avenue, 409 Nicholson Tower

St. Francis Xavier University

Antigonish, NS  B2G 2W5

Canada

(902)867-2265

kpenner AT stfx.ca

 

 

 

 

From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of C L
Sent: Friday, September 27, 2013 4:28 AM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 44:24

 

Barry,

If I may respond to your comments:

"If I may paraphrase his grammar-speak, the aorist views the action as simple action, rather than as a process (imperfect) or in terms of completion (perfect)."

>> I think this is a correct statement about Wallace's grammar.

"With regard to the aorist indicative, this means that the action is viewed as taking place in the past (from the point of view the speaker or writer of the text, or represented as so from the point of view presented in the text)."

>> Often, but not always. Aorist often indicates events that occur in the simple present. Stanley Porter discusses this at length in his Verbal Aspect in the Greek of the New Testament. Wallace's discussion of Aktionsart is pertinent here, as well. Aorist simply denotes unmarked action that is viewed as a complete event. It IS the "normal narrative past tense verb," as you say, but it is very often used to denote present tense, gnomic usage, and other types of action. I did misspeak myself by describing the use of aorist in Isaiah 44:24 as "gnomic." I was looking for the correct category for the timeless use of the aorist, which would normally be signaled in English by the simple present.

Getting back to Isaiah 44:24...

The "timeless snapshot" use of the aorist neatly explains why the Greek translators chose it to render participial Hebrew verb forms used to describe Y'.

Sincerely,

Chris Lovelace




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