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  • From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] theophoric prefixes (YH~YHW)
  • Date: Mon, 7 Aug 2006 19:27:52 -0700

Peter:

From what I have seen of Wikipedia, I would estimate the error rate at well
over 1%, 10% or higher may be the accurate figure. But then many of the
articles that I looked up have disagreements among experts, so that could
skew my informal observations. But look at David's follow up notice, which
quotes Wikipedia for its verifiable, not accurate, stance.

As for the pronunciation of YHWH, I have heard of disagreements, but I have
not really looked into them, nor the arguments promoted by the different
factions, nor how the theophoric pronunciations may affect their arguments.
Because I have not really looked into the arguments, I can't answer your
questions below.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 8/6/06, Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org> wrote:

On 07/08/2006 00:08, K Randolph wrote:
> Peter:
>
> You shouldn't take umbrage to what David said. You yourself admit that
> wikipedia is an uncertain source, and that's all David intimated. Or
> at least that's how I read his statement.
>
> Even if all the experts agreed (in this case, they don't, because this
> controversy exists), that does not mean they are correct.
>
Karl, Wikipedia is indeed an uncertain source, but that is not any kind
of evidence that any particular statement made in it is incorrect. In
fact probably more than 90%, maybe even more than 99%, are correct. It's
not 100%. But it is still more probable that any one statement is true
than that it is false.

Do experts really disagree on this one? Can you point me to any experts
who deny "that the prefixes Yeho or Yo and the suffixes Yah or Yahu can
readily be explained if the original pronunciation was "YaHWeH""? I know
there are experts who deny that this is the original pronunciation, but
are there any who deny that this pronunciation can explain these four
shortened forms? In other words, the statement is that X implies Y, and
although some people deny X, does anyone deny that, if X were true, it
would in fact imply Y? Of course the logic allows Y to be true without X
being true.

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/






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