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  • From: peter_kirk AT SIL.ORG
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re[4]: Translations and Arian Bias
  • Date: Thu, 01 Apr 1999 20:58:52 -0500


Well, maybe they knew the tradition of Philo, but maybe they just knew
John (who called Jesus Christ the Logos) and Paul (who called Jesus
Christ the firstborn - actually John or his followers did also,
Revelation 1:5) and put two and two together. For that matter, they
could have derived their understanding directly from Proverbs 8:22ff.
Also, I am not sure that you can call texts which are probably
derivative from Colossians and a century or so later part of its
cultural context. But thank you for showing that the "orthodox"
Christian view of the firstborn was clearly understood in the second
century.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Re[3]: Translations and Arian Bias
Author: mc2499 AT mclink.it at internet
Date: 31/03/1999 18:29


<snip>
To understand the tradition in which the sentence was written, you should
see that the either/or in the last sentence is not relevant. As the first
step in creation, the image of God is born first. Here's Theophilus (To
Autolycus 2,10):
----------------------------------------------------------------------
--- <snip>
This is Athenagoras, writing in the mid-second century:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
--- <snip>

These are the heirs of Philo (whether they knew him or not is irrelevant,
for they clearly knew the tradition in which Philo could call the Logos,
"God's first-born").

One can't simply import theological issues that may not be reflected in the
text one is analysing (Col 1:15). Accordingly one should take note of the
cultural context, part of which I have alluded to here. There is no reason
to treat "first-born" any differently in this passage from its other
literary contexts, which all seem to belong to the one cultural complex.


Ian


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