Could this not simply be the phenomenon of shifting semantic domains? In
Hebrew, this word means 'perfect' in the sense of 'complete'. While
'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual
Latin word has a slightly different semantic range, on which Augustine
is basing his discussion. In other words, Augustine is situating his
discussion within the Latin meanings of the Latin word, not the Hebrew
meanings of the Hebrew word.
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