Thank you.
But where does the idea of perfection come in?
What confuses me is that the Latin (perfectum) seems to carry the idea
of completion too, and yet Augustine's comments on this verse seem to
take the word in more the sense that a modern speaker of English takes
"perfect."
Here's what he wrote:
"What is, 'with a perfect hatred'? I hated in them their iniquities, I
loved Your creation. This it is to hate with a perfect hatred, that
neither on account of the vices thou hate the men, nor on account of the
men love the vices."
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/1801139.htm
Did he somehow read something alien to both the Hebrew word (תכלית
TAKLIYT), and the Latin "perfectum" into this text?
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