I don't think Augustine is reading anything into תכלית. He's not reading
Hebrew at all. He's reading Latin 'perfectum'. So to a large extent,
your approach is asking the wrong question. If you want to know what
Augustine thought, just look at Latin 'perfectum'. If you want to know
whether Augustine's view incidentally overlaps at all with the Hebrew,
you need to compare the semantic ranges of תכלית and 'perfectum'.
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