>>>>I think the answer to this is that Augustine is dealing
specifically with a theological issue, not a lexical one. Have a look
at the specific context of his statements:<<<<
I read the context, and I understand he's dealing with a theological
issue, but the quote seems to make much less sense if he mean "complete."
I hated in them their iniquities, I loved Your creation. This it is to
hate with a complete hatred, that neither on account of the vices thou
hate the men, nor on account of the men love the vices.
>>>>Now, I'm not going to comment on his solution, but simply observe
that it does not mean imputing the later developed idea
of "perfect" (i.e., morally without flaw) into the word, but that a
"complete" hatred can be exercised as long as the object of that hatred
is the proper object.<<<<
But the object would seem to be "them."
It doesn't make any sense to me (and I don't see how it could make any
sense to Augustine or his readers) to suggest that a "complete" hatred
of "them" was just a hatred of their vices, but it might make sense to
suggest that a (morally) perfect hatred of "them" was a hatred of their
vices.
Someone said TAKLIYT contains the idea of "goal, or purpose," did
"perfectum" contain the same idea (and could that have implied moral
perfection to Augustine)?
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.