Hi Peter, You wrote:HH: It doesn't have to be a verbless clause. It could be simply a phrase and is so translated by the NIV:
I don't think you will find any other place in the Hebrew Bible
where a WAYYIQTOL verb is preceded by a clause subordinate to it, which
seems to be Alter's grammatical understanding.
What is bayyom hashshlishi in Gen 22:4?
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