...You seem to be contradicting yourself. First you claim that Semitic is vowelless, now that vowels are central to its morphology. Do you mean that there has been a change since Bible times, that Hebrew etc used to be vowelless and then acquired vowels? If so, do you mean that biblical Hebrew originally lacked morphology? This is patently ridiculous.
Note "everything" and "potentially." Vowels are central to Semitic
morphology. They "are" the morphology. Without vowels, script is not just
potentially sometimes ambiguous, but morphologically inadequate.
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