Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
Date: Thu, 28 Apr 2005 19:59:03 +0300
> > Obviously, vowels already developed by the time of Ugarit, and likely
> > already in Sumer. What I suggest, is that original version of Semitic
lacked
> > distinguishable vowels. This created the vowelless writing. Cuneiform
> > developed as more advanced writing system - already seemingly with
different
> > vowels. By the time Biblical Hebrew emerged, vowels were long
> > differentiated, but the writing system preserved the earliest concept of
> > single-vowel language.
>
> So you think the West Semitic script predates cuneiform?
I don't exclude that some vowelless script predates cuneiform. I know this
is an unorthodox view. But we have too little epigraphic material to be
certain otherwise. Also, cuneiform is a reasonably developed writing. Syllabic
cuneiform, at any rate, is quite late.
Vadim Cherny
Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
, (continued)