Even omitting the prefixes, vowels show the form.
In most cases, vowels are the only morphological instruments.
You have brought up the distinction between Qal and Piel, but from
working with Ugaritic, I can tell you that even from the
remote perspective of a modern scholar, we can usually
select the appropriate stem form.
How? I don't think that meaning of paal and piel so diverges that it could
be usually derived from context.
[snipped]
I'm not an expert on writing systems, but I didn't hear of any other
vowelless script. When Sumerians created cuneiform for developed multi-vowel
language, they resorted to syllabary. Why no equivalent stage in West
Semitic?
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