Peter:
I agree with you that the Greek has this reading. But is that the reading
that the translator intended? Or did he mess up the Greek to try to
communicate a Hebrew idea?
In particular, who is the AUTWi? Judah? Can't be, as he is the one holding
the objects in the first place. Or does this mean he will hold the objects
until all that prophesied about him will come to a close, meaning that when
Judah no longer has those objects, that is the end of prophecy?
As to my reading of the Hebrew, I understand it as a contraction of )$R LW in
the same manner as Ezekiel 21:32 (also previously cited in reference to this
verse) where the )$R LW is the subject of the verb. This subject, directly
translated from Hebrew to Greek would be in dative, not nominative as
expected for Greek.
Upon later thought, if I were the translator of the passage, I would have
stated hEOS AN ELQHi AUTOS TOU TA APOKEIMENA recognizing that here in this
verse the LH (archaic form of LW ) actually has a genetive emphasis,
signifying ownership. Further that the objects owned are those mentioned as
the subjects of the main sentence.
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