On Tue, 25 Jan 2005 22:07:12 -0500 "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>But, in partial answer to Karl, the Greek could mean "until that which is reserved / destined for him comes", in other words with AUTWi as an indirect object of the participle APOKEIMENA. And that just might reflect an understanding of the Hebrew $YLH as the relative $- (= Aramaic DIY) and LW = "to him", in other words the combination as equivalent to modern Hebrew $LW "belonging to him".
writes:
Peter:____________________
I did not claim that TA APOKEIMENA is the subject of the main sentence, rather it is a reference that points back to the subject of the main sentence. I agree that the former is not allowed, but the latter is. As a neuter plural, it is either nominative or accusative.
As I said before, I am not a Greek expert, so how would one say "until comes the one to whom they belong"? Whereas proper Greek has the subject of a verb only as a nominative, could this be a Hebreism by the translator as Hebrew allows the equivelant of the dative as the subject of the verb?
Karl,
Actually, TA APOKEIMENA is nom. as the subject of ELQHi. It would read
"until that which is reserved / destined comes to him."
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