Kata Markon

["Ralph Cox" <rmiltonc AT hotmail.com>]

From: Ralph Cox 

Are they trying to tie up Jesus by saying he is in the power of Satan; Or,

Is Jesus tying up Satan by casting out demons?

The demonology that is found throughout the Gospels says that the conflict is many layered, but stemming from one source.

The Judean opponents were seen as a group deceived by Satan, and therefore doing his will.

Unless we are trying to see some "historical Jesus" beyond the text of Mark, we must assume a consistent line of reasoning (weather or not we believe it ourselves) thus:

Jesus casts out demons.

Jesus is accused of using the power of Satan to do it.

Jesus challenges the logic of Satan casting out his own demons (and in the parallels he reminds the Judeans that their own members also cast out demons, and that the validity of their allegation stands in judgment by their own.).

Jesus gives the reason for casting out demons; "You must first tie up the strong man."

Jesus closes with the warning that to call the Messiah a devil is treading on the unforgivable. (Because once you call God and his good works evil, there is no known way for God to win you back. Perhaps there is some modern application for the "Strong Man" in the outside world.)

rmiltonc AT hotmail.com

>From: JFAlward AT aol.com

>Reply-To: "Kata Markon"

>To: "Kata Markon"

>Subject: [gmark] Re: Literary function of 3:21-30 in the "story world" of Mark.

>Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2002 15:52:01 EDT

>

>JOHN OLIFF

>Has anyone considered the function of the parable of the "strong man" in the

>"story world" of Mark. Further, if the parable [s] do have an in-text

>function, how then do they "apply" to the outside world?

>

>SEAMUS O'CONNELL

>There should be an interesting line of enquiry if you note that there are

>only two instances of _skeuos_ in Mark: one in the house of the strong man

>(3:27) and the other in the temple (11:16) which is also a house of a strong

>one…

>

>JOE ALWARD

>I think it's a dead-end line of inquiry. It's hard to imagine that the

>authors of these Markan passages wanted their readers to see any connection

>between the _skeuos_ in the house (Mark 3:27) and the _skeuos diaphero dia

>hieron_ (Mark 11:16). The first is a person, a strong man, while the second

>is an object (a vessel) that needs to be carried through the temple.

>

>What "in-text" function does the strong man parable have? Let's first look

>at what the NIV says Mark said:

>

>22 And the teachers of the law who came down from Jerusalem said, "He is

>possessed by Beelzebub! By the prince of demons he is driving out demons."

>23 So Jesus called them and spoke to them in parables: "How can Satan drive

>out Satan? 24 If a kingdom is divided against itself, that kingdom cannot

>stand. 25 If a house is divided against itself, that house cannot stand. 26

>And if Satan opposes himself and is divided, he cannot stand; his end has

>come. 27 In fact, no one can enter a strong man's house and carry off his

>possessions unless he first ties up the strong man. Then he can rob his

>house. 28 I tell you the truth, all the sins and blasphemies of men will be

>forgiven them."

>

>The origin and meaning of Mark 3:22-28 seems simple enough: The author of

>this passage seems merely to be having Jesus remind his listeners in the

>house that the teachers of the law outside are shouting insults ("He's the

>devil!") in order to turn the men inside the house against him.

>

>Why complicate Mark's work by imagining that there must have been an

>antecedent "strong man" story in their "story world" in order that Mark's

>readers/hearers understand this simple message?

>

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