Kata Markon

[Steve Black <sblack AT axionet.com>]

My question is why.
Why does "mark" use Homer. He is very intentional when he uses the 
OT. It seems that Mark doesn't use narrative parallels from The OT, 
but rather literary ("midrashic" - so to speak) quotes, as in the 
opening passage of the gospel. That perhaps is something worth 
discussing in itself in this context - but even so, these OT passages 
are dripping with significance. So that seems clearly to be mark's 
style. So what is the "significance" of his use of Homer?