Kata Markon

["George Young" <gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca>]

The following was posted to the list, a carryover from B-Greek forum.  I
apologize for any confusion as to my own response.


>This discussion is being carried over from a thread initiated in the
>B-Greek
>forum (original thread: Re: Is it a question or not), and concerns whether
>the demonized man of Mk 1.24 refers to 'himself + demon' or 'himself +
>crowd' when he speaks as "us".  At this point the discussion is moving
>towards the larger function of this passage in Mark


I find the attribution of hUMIN (v. 24a) to include the people of Capernaum
(demon + crowd) an interesting hermeneutical maneuver, as it does seem to
explain the vocative address to "Jesus of Nazareth."  But what do you do
with the content of the outburst (i.e., "have you come to destroy us?"),
for
it follows Jesus' teaching session which, as far as we know, posses no
apparent threat to the people of Capernaum?  Moreover, the tone of this
outburst is very consistent with what demons say elsewhere.  I apologize if
this hiccup was already addressed on B-Greek.

One further query: has anyone thought it peculiar that the demon is
portrayed as "SUDDENLY appearing in THEIR [versus 'the']  synagogue?"

George W. Young, PhD
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies
Queen's College Faculty of Theology
210 Prince Philip Drive
St. John's  NF
CANADA   A1B 3R6
Tel. (709) 753-0116
Fax. (709) 753-1214
email: gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca