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Subject: Kata Markon

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  • From: "George Young" <gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca>
  • To: "Kata Markon" <gmark AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Mk 1:24
  • Date: Mon, 15 Nov 1999 09:30:26 -0330


>>This discussion is being carried over from a thread initiated in the
>B-Greek
>>forum (original thread: Re: Is it a question or not), and concerns whether
>>the demonized man of Mk 1.24 refers to 'himself + demon' or 'himself +
>>crowd' when he speaks as "us". At this point the discussion is moving
>>towards the larger function of this passage in Mark

>I find the attribution of hUMIN (v. 24a) to include the people of Capernaum
>(demon + crowd) an interesting hermeneutical maneuver, as it does seem to
>explain the vocative address to "Jesus of Nazareth." But what do you do
>with the content of the outburst (i.e., "have you come to destroy us?"),
for
>it follows Jesus' teaching session which, as far as we know, posses no
>apparent threat to the people of Capernaum? Moreover, the tone of this
>outburst is very consistent with what demons say elsewhere. I apologize if
>this hiccup was already addressed on B-Greek.
>
>One further query: has anyone thought it peculiar that the demon is
>portrayed as "SUDDENLY appearing in THEIR [versus 'the'] synagogue?"

George W. Young, PhD
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies
Queen's College Faculty of Theology
210 Prince Philip Drive
St. John's NF
CANADA A1B 3R6
Tel. (709) 753-0116
Fax. (709) 753-1214
email: gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca




  • Mk 1:24, George Young, 11/15/1999
    • <Possible follow-up(s)>
    • MK 1:24, George Young, 11/15/1999
    • Re: MK 1:24, Joe A. Friberg, 11/15/1999

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