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Subject: Corpus-Paul
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- From: "James Ernest" <jdernest AT alum.bu.edu>
- To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Cc: MillerJimE AT aol.com
- Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16
- Date: Thu, 30 Nov 2006 23:39:22 -0500
> As far as I know this is the only time Paul, or anyone else, uses phesin
> for a Scripture quote.
Don't know about that, but I was just notincing that it seems pretty common in the Apostolic Fathers (1 Clem, 2 Clem, Barn)--maybe worth checking to see if there are any instances that match what you're suggesting here? My impression is that when phesin (or another verb) is used without a subject the writer simply isn't being specific about the subject--God, Moses, scripture, whatever--it's an authoritative quotation and specific subject doesn't matter.
James Ernest
On 11/30/06, MillerJimE AT aol.com <MillerJimE AT aol.com
> wrote:
I don't think I have asked this question on this list before. 1 Corinthinas 6:16 quotes Genesis 2:24 and introduces the quotation not with his usual "gegraptai" (1:19; 2:9; 4:6; 9:9) but with "phesin" (he says). As far as I know this is the only time Paul, or anyone else, uses phesin for a Scripture quote.Who is the "he" who says this? Commentaries tend to opt for God as the inspirer of Scripture. However, I think Paul is saying that this is quoted by Jesus as a teaching on sexual ethics -- a dominical saying related to Matthew 19 where Jesus also quotes Genesis 2:24 against polygamy (divorce & remarriage) as well as other non-marital sexual outlets (19:10-12).Any thoughts on this theory? Does anyone know of a scholar who has published this idea before?Thanks,Jim Miller
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Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16,
MillerJimE, 11/30/2006
- Re: [Corpus-Paul] 1 Cor 6:16, James Ernest, 11/30/2006
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