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Re: [Corpus-Paul] Mending the grammar of Gal 2:3-5 with Timothy
- From: George F Somsel <gfsomsel AT juno.com>
- To: corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Cc: corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Mending the grammar of Gal 2:3-5 with Timothy
- Date: Mon, 28 Feb 2005 00:02:18 -0500
On Sun, 27 Feb 2005 14:19:17 -0800 Richard Fellows <rfellows AT shaw.ca> writes:
> listers, > > Gal 2:3-5 makes little grammatical sense if the DE in 4 is taken as > adversative, so let's explore what happens if we take it as > explicative. In > that case verse 4 states the reason why Titus was not compelled to > be > circumcised. Blommerde does indeed take it to be explicative and > translates: > > 3. But not even Titus, who was with me, was compelled to be > circumcised, > though he was a Greek, 4. namely: because of the false brothren > secretly > brought in - they slipped in to spy out our freedom which we have in > Christ > Jesus that they might bring us into bondage; 5. to them we did ot > yield > submission even for a moment, that the truth of the gospel might be > preserved for you. > > Machen considers a similar understanding: > > "Not even Titus," Paul would say in accordance with this > interpretation, > "was compelled to be circumcised; and that - namely, the > non-circumcision of > Titus - was on account of the privily brought in false brethren." In > other > words, if the false brethren had not been there, Titus might have > been > circumcised; but their general contention about the Gentile converts > made > the question about Titus a test case, so that yielding even in that > case > became impossible. > > This makes a lot of sense, and seems to be confirmed by 2:5, where > Paul > clarifies 2:3-4. Paul, Titus, and the apostles did not yield to the > false > brothers for a moment so that the false brothers would not be able > to use > this precedent to subvert the truth of the gospel. > > Why has this interpretation not been widely accepted? I think it is > because > of the implication that the apostles would have had Titus > circumcised if > false brothers had not been at large in the church. Commentators > deny that > Paul would have permitted the circumcision of an ordinary Gentile > under any > circumstances. But why must we assume that Titus was an ordinary > Gentile? > Should we not rather take 2:3-5 as evidence that Titus was NOT an > ordinary > Gentile, but was the most Jewish of Gentiles? Indeed, this might be > the > force of the OUDE in 2:3 - even Titus was not compelled. > > If Titus was Timothy he was the one person whom Paul was prepared > to > circumcise, for Paul did indeed circumcise him at a later date. In > 2:3-5 > Paul might then be saying that the Jerusalem apostles did not even > ask > TIMOTHY to be circumcised, because they did not want to send the > wrong > message to the gentile churches such as those in Galatia, since the > false > brothers had made circumcision such a hot issue. So, by equating > Titus with > Timothy we can simultaneously mend Paul's grammar in 2:3-5 and end > up with a > historically plausible reading. I know of no way of doing this > without the > T-T hypothesis. Do you? > > I am sometimes asked why Paul did not have Titus-Timothy circumcised > in > Jerusalem. Why was the circumcision of T-T appropriate in Galatia if > it had > not been appropriate in Jerusalem? What different circumcstances > applied in > Jerusalem and Galatia? This is a valid question. I think there are > two > differences between the situations in Jerusalem and Galatia. > Firstly, Acts > 16:3 indicates that Timothy's promotion to the rank of missionary > companion > was what made the circumcision necessary at that point. Timothy > would need > to be circumcised to gain an audiance among the Jews for his > preaching. > Secondly, the circumcision issue was hotly disputed at the time of > the > Jerusalem visit and this made it inadvisable to have Timothy > circumcised > then. Indeed, Paul may be saying as much in Gal 2:3-5, as has been > discussed > above. > > On any hypothesis, Paul would not have circumcised Timothy if the > south > Galatian churches had been under the influence of the influencers at > that > time. Such a circumcision would have sent the wrong message. If > Galatians > was written before the circumcision of Timothy it must have been > successful > so that Paul was comfortable enough to circumcise him. If Galatians > was > written after the circumcision of Timothy the controversy in Galatia > arose > after Acts 16:1-3. The interpretation of Gal 2:1-3 given above > seems > compatable with both these alternatives. Is there any way of > choosing > between them? > > Richard. ________________________- From the WBC vol. 41 on Galatians by R.N.
Longenecker.
george
gfsomsel ___________ |
- Re: [Corpus-Paul] Mending the grammar of Gal 2:3-5 with Timothy, George F Somsel, 02/27/2005
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