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Re: Corinthian Correspondence

From: CoH61PA AT aol.com
To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
Subject: Re: Corinthian Correspondence
Date: Sat, 10 Aug 2002 21:03:01 EDT

Hello all,
I am new here.
Since Corinthians is being discussed, I have a question.

When Paul speaks of the Last Supper in 1st Corinthians 11, he gives the words
as they appear in other gospels. However, why does Paul say that he got this
information from the Lord? He would have gotten it from Cephas in 49CE if
anyone. Was this just rhetorical overkill by Paul?

Thanks,
Mike B.

Corinthian Correspondence, Vince Endris, 08/10/2002
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, cfjacks, 08/10/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, Jack Kilmon, 08/10/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, rfellows, 08/10/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, CoH61PA, 08/10/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, cfjacks, 08/11/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, Vince Endris, 08/11/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, rfellows, 08/11/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, rfellows, 08/11/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, cfjacks, 08/11/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, George Athas, 08/12/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, Jack Kilmon, 08/12/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, CoH61PA, 08/12/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, cfjacks, 08/12/2002
- Re: Corinthian Correspondence, Eric Zuesse, 08/14/2002