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  • From: CoH61PA AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Corinthian Correspondence
  • Date: Sat, 10 Aug 2002 21:03:01 EDT


Hello all,
I am new here.
Since Corinthians is being discussed, I have a question.

When Paul speaks of the Last Supper in 1st Corinthians 11, he gives the words
as they appear in other gospels. However, why does Paul say that he got this
information from the Lord? He would have gotten it from Cephas in 49CE if
anyone. Was this just rhetorical overkill by Paul?

Thanks,
Mike B.




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