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  • From: "Kym Smith" <khs AT picknowl.com.au>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: The Destination Of Ephesians
  • Date: Sat, 11 May 2002 03:18:35 -0400


Dear Dave,

Despite Eric Zeusse’s comments, I think there are reasons for the apparent
differences between Ephesians and other Pauline epistles.

<<< The problems are that some MSS do not include the words “in Ephesus” in
1:1, there are none of Paul’s traditional greetings, and the whole tone of
the letter is much more formal than would be expected. After all, he had
previously spent three years in Ephesus (Acts 19), and must have known many
people there very well.>>>

In my book “Redating the Revelation and…” – which argues for an early
Revelation (mid 62) which preceded most of the NT – I propose a
reconstruction of the 60s which has Paul leaving Rome (spring 62) and
returning to Ephesus (via Philippi). He returned to deal with the apostate
Nicolaitans in that city and elsewhere in Asia. Before he could contend
with them, however, he had to clear charges that had been laid against him
in Ephesus (Acts 19:38) which meant a time in prison there. It was to
avoid facing those charges that Paul had bypassed Ephesus earlier (Acts
20:15f), but they could be avoided no longer.

While in prison in Ephesus, John received the Revelation on Patmos.
Ephesians was Paul’s response to the Revelation (‘…we are not contending
against flesh and blood, but…’ – 6:12f). It was addressed, in the first
place, to the seven churches of Asia (Rev 2&3) and was probably
accompanied by 1 John and 1 Peter, the responses, I believe, of those two
apostles to the Revelation. With the other two letters, however, it was
circulated much more broadly that Asia and usually without the addressees
in 1:1 – hence the large number of MSS without that information. As Paul
had not personally visited any of the Asian churches other than the one in
Ephesus, he was writing to many whom, at that stage, he had not met. The
fact that the letter would be taken to many – both inside and outside of
Asia – who did not know Paul, as well as the primary need for correction
and encouragement in the face of the judgments and suffering the
Revelation foretold, meant that Paul did not include the personal details
we might normally expect in his letters.

From Ephesus, the letter was first sent to Laodicea by the hand of
Tychicus with the letters to Colossians and Philemon. Because the seven
Asian churches would have all received copy addressed to them, there is
no reason why it could not have been known by another name – e.g. Marcion
and the letter to the Laodiceans – but that it originated from Ephesus
probably explains why that name stuck.

<<<When was Ephesians written?>>>
Mid to late 62.

<<<Was the letter actually sent to Ephesus?>>>
Yes, but not Ephesus alone. Paul himself was in Ephesus and would have
been able to personally communicate much to the believers there.

<<< If the letter came to Colosse “from Laodicea”, then this makes it possible
that a copy of Ephesians is actually “the letter from Laodicea” referred
to in Col 4:16. >>>

I expect it was.

Sincerely,

Kym Smith
Adelaide
South Australia
khs AT picknowl.com.au




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