Corpus-Paul

["moon-ryul jung" <moon AT saint.soongsil.ac.kr>]

On 10/27/99, ""Mark D. Nanos" <nanos AT gvi.net>" wrote:
> >Moon writes:
> >I wanted to ask this question also to Mark's post. If you are right,
> >Paul started with "You Gentiles received Spirit through faith" and ended
> >with "Christ is cursed so that the Jews might receive the promise of
> >the Spirit". Isn't it somewhat off the mark?
> 
> Dear Moon,
> I am not sure I understand your question. What is the mark? 
I meant the target of Paul's argument, which was to prove that
the Galatians received the Spirit by faith (verse 3:2).
If the whole argument ends up with "so that we (Israel)
might receive the promise of the Spirit by faith" (3:14b), 
as Jeff argues, Paul misses the target, reaching a off-target
conclusion. I thought you have the same view as Jeff.
But you do not, as shown below.



And does 
> not Paul's argument go the opposite way according to my comments? 
> Perhaps Paul is saying "Christ redeemed us (Israel) from the curse of 
> the Law (Deuteronomic covenant with Israel), having become a curse 
> for us (Israel)...that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham 
> (covenant with all nations) might come upon the gentiles/all nations, 
> that 

we (all humankind) might receive the Spirit through faith (the 
> faithfulness of Christ and/or the response of faith)." His preceding 
> and following arguments seem to be along this same line.

Aha, you take the "us" to refer to Israel, and the "we" to all humankind.
If that is possible, then the conclusion surely proves the verse 2.
But is that possible grammatically speaking?
Both "us" and "we" should refer to the same group, it seems.

Moon
Moon R. Jung
Associate Professor
Dept of Computer Science
Soongsil University,
Seoul, Korea