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corpus-paul - Re: Faith in God vs Faith in Christ (To Jon, David, Mark)

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  • From: "Jon Peter" <jnp AT home.com>
  • To: "Corpus Paulinum" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Faith in God vs Faith in Christ (To Jon, David, Mark)
  • Date: Sun, 30 May 1999 17:40:13 -0700


Moon wrote:

(a) To reject Christ in favor of the Law proves that faith [in God]
never really existed.

It seems that Jesus said a similar thing: If you had believed in Moses, you
would have believed in me.

---------

Reply (Jon):

Thanks for pointing this out, as shows the agreement in ideas about the Law,
Judaism etc. between John's Gospel and Paul's letters. Similarities in their
unique positions are so evident that I assume familiarity or dependence
and/or collaboration.

Recently I've been comparing Paul and the synoptics as well, and am finding
yet more consistency than I might have expected.

One example, Mt 8.11-12, bears on yesterday's Gal. 4 (and Romans) discussion
threads in which Paul says that Gentiles now replace Christ-rejecting Jews.
cf also Mt. 21.43 and Lk 14.24.

The Gospels are so hard on Judaism in fact -- just like Paul -- that some
liberal scholars assume the Gospels were either written after Paul's
Gentiles were in charge, or the negative stuff was interpolated by them.

I would love to get anyone's book recommendations (widely available type) or
other resources about purported NT interpolations on such themes.
Incidentally, I will get around to posting some articles on what I find in
my Paul -and- synoptic comparisons, on the Exegesis e-list.)

Moon continues:

[portion deleted for brevity]

"…But these statements should be read in the context of the neighboring
paragraphs. For example, one needs to think about why Paul inserted
Rom 10:12 "For there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile" in the
text that talks about Israel's "unbelief". I am surprised to find
this statement here.

-------
Reply:

Paul's statement makes sense although his train of associations might be
easy to miss.

Immediately before 10.12, Paul quotes Isa 28.16 'Everyone who trusts in him
will never be put to shame.' Paul's point is that the 'everyone' (pas)
includes Gentiles. He's claiming that Isa. was prophesying about Gentile
inclusion. Immediately after Rom 10.12, Paul then cites another 'everyone
who…' prophecy again, Joel 2.32, claiming the same inclusion and equality.

Paul's immediately prior references to Israel's "unbelief" are really in the
context of quoting scripture on what the Torah really was about -- Lev 18.5,
Deut 30.12, 14. Israel's disbelief in that Torah actually stemmed from a
lack of understanding or intellectual blindness.

Paul neatly ties his 'Jewish unbelief' theme to his 'there's no difference
between Jews and Gentiles,' with Isa 28.16. The 'trust' (pisteuo) exists in
one's heart -- as faith in God. This trust is/was to be combined with a
confession with the mouth too (Deut 30.14=Rom 8.8.). Isaiah was uttering a
prophetic description of this same faith, to foretell a Gospel of pisteuo +
confession (homologeo), based in Deut 30, in which (said Isaiah) 'everyone'
(pas) may participate.

This *pas* leads Paul add one more HB proof-text (Joel 2.32) for an
inclusive, faith- and confession-based revelation of old -- which some Jews
are now failing to perceive.

Regards,

Jon





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