Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Olivier Randrianjaka <rev_oli AT hotmail.com>]

George Athas and Penner,

Thanks a lot for your helpful responsee and for sending those references, very helpful! Yes I am very interested in its semantic field. I am quite surprised when Milgrom says in his volumuninous commentary that they are synonymous, please read below:
"It has been shown that ḥaṭṭāʾt is a privative piʿel noun with the meaning “purification,” corresponding to the piʿel verb ḥiṭṭēʾ ‘purify’ (Milgrom 1971a: 237ff.). Consequently, ḥaṭṭāʾt and niddâ in Zech 13:1 are synonyms, and the phrase there should be construed as “for purification and for lustration.” (Thus there is no need to derive niddâ from a putative piʿel privative denoting “remove impurity,” as I originally conjectured, 1990a: 160, on Num 19:9.) Milgrom, J. (2008). Leviticus 1-16: A new translation with introduction and commentary (745). New Haven; London: Yale University Press." Seen from this point of view it is easy to understand Milgrom's arguments for he believes that ḥaṭṭāʾt, when denoting offering (and not "sin, mistake, error, offence"), should be rendered "purification offering" not "sin offering".  Then my question is is it possible that in some contexts or at a certain period of time both ḥaṭṭāʾt and niddâ become synonymous and refer to impurity?

Olivier Randrianjaka
PhD Student at MHS, Assistant Lecturer at
Lutheran Graduate School of Theology (SALT)
Fianarantsoa, Madagascar

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From: kpenner AT stfx.ca
To: rev_oli AT hotmail.com; b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Sun, 2 Jun 2013 10:10:56 -0300
Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] נִדָּה and חַטָּאת in Zech 13:1

Are you asking if נִדָּה  has a more general meaning beyond the context of menstruation?

Have you considered the uses of נִדָּה in Ezekiel 7:19-20; 36:17; Ezra 9:11; 2 Chr 29:5?

Also compare Numbers 19.

 

 

Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.

Associate Professor, Religious Studies

2329 Notre Dame Avenue, 409 Nicholson Tower

St. Francis Xavier University

Antigonish, NS  B2G 2W5

Canada

(902)867-2265

kpenner AT stfx.ca

 

 

 

 

From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Olivier Randrianjaka
Sent: Saturday, June 01, 2013 5:01 PM
To: b-hebrew Forum
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] נִדָּה and חַטָּאת in Zech 13:1

 

Correction:
My question is, is it possible that, at a certain period of time (probably Late Hebrew), נִדָּה and חַטָּאת are synonymous and mean “impurity”?

Olivier Randrianjaka

Olivier Randrianjaka
PhD Student at MHS, Assistant Lecturer at
Lutheran Graduate School of Theology (SALT)
Fianarantsoa, Madagascar

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From: rev_oli AT hotmail.com
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Sun, 2 Jun 2013 03:53:55 +0800
Subject: [b-hebrew] נִדָּה and חַטָּאת in Zech 13:1

Dear friends,
The term נִדָּה refers to women’s menstrual period, but in a particular verse (Zech 13:1):  בַּיּ֣וֹם הַה֗וּא יִֽהְיֶה֙ מָק֣וֹר נִפְתָּ֔ח לְבֵ֥ית דָּוִ֖יד וּלְיֹשְׁבֵ֣י יְרֽוּשָׁלִָ֑ם לְחַטַּ֖את וּלְנִדָּֽה׃
 (Zec 13:1 WTT), "On that day a fountain shall be opened for the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem, to cleanse them from sin and impurity. (NRSV)"  it is used in parallel with חַטָּאת, “sin” which seems to me that they are synonymous, not because they are put next to each other but because the context would suggest that they both carry the meaning “impurity”, “unclenness”. My question is, is it possible that, at a certain period of time (probably Late Hebrew), נִדָּה and חַטָּאת are synonymous and mean “impure”?

Any thought?

Thanks in advance for your brilliant answers.

Olivier Randrianjaka

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