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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] to rolf
  • Date: Sat, 25 May 2013 12:34:08 -0700

George:

On Sat, May 25, 2013 at 1:19 AM, George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au> wrote:
Rolf asked:

> How will you explain the past reference of all the YIQTOLs and WAYYIQTOLs
> in Psalm 18? How can you uphold your model with so many "exceptions" to
> it? (There are scores upon scores of similar "exceptions")

First, I don't see wayyiqtol as indicating past tense at all. It is actually a 'live action' verb. However, the past tense of yiqtol is merely a product of thinking in terms of European languages. The yiqtol itself indicates indefinite action, whether past, present, or future. Tense is in no way encoded within the verb. Iterative actions in the past (eg. 'he used to kill') or actions that have not been actualised (eg. 'he will kill' or 'he might kill') or actions that are generally true at all time ('gnomic', eg. 'he kills—it's just what he does') are all within the indefinite nature of the yiqtol. Sometimes this is referred to as modus irrealis, but a more palatable term is, I think, indefinite.

Yes, but the same can be said of Qatal in its uses. Since the same can be said of Qatal, how do you differentiate between Qatal and Yiqtol? 

So the 'past tense' of yiqtol is perfectly within the scope of the verb, though the particular term 'past tense' is somewhat foreign to the Biblical Hebrew verb. However, since the job of translation is going from the logic of one language into the logic of another, we can talk about those instances where the yiqtol translates into English as a past tense.

This is why I keep emphasizing that translation is not the same as understanding within a language. 


GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
Sydney, Australia


Karl W. Randolph.



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