Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

David:

On Thu, May 2, 2013 at 2:33 PM, David Kolinsky <hadeesh AT sbcglobal.net> wrote:

Nir and members of the group,

For a variety of reason's, I still do not agree - a word can have multiple meanings and still be of the same root.

There’s a major point of disagreement right there—a word can have multiple translations because of the differences from one language to another. but within its own milieu, it has one meaning.

The exception is when you run into homonyms. But you didn’t claim that here.

But your weakest point is that the contexts don’t support your reading.

 

But, we do not have to agree.  And I admit that because of my lack of free time, I have not put the time into making my case adequately.
Nevertheless, thank you for your input - I greatly appreciate your voice on this matter.

I am curious how willing members of the group would translate $LM in (Jb41:3) - because I believe this to have a similarly unconventional translation.

??? What’s the problem? Looks pretty normal to me.

david kolinsky
Monterey CA

Karl W. Randolph.