Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Nir cohen - Prof. Mat." <nir AT ccet.ufrn.br>]

can't we just accept the different names as expressing the 
principle of poetic variation? of course, i accept that the 
situation is different in other places, e.g. in Ex 15. but maybe
Job went through a different editing process than Ex 15.

 וְאֶל-מִי, תְּדַמְּיוּן אֵל; וּמַה-דְּמוּת, תַּעַרְכוּ לוֹ.  isaiah 40:18

 לָכֵן, כֹּה אָמַר אֲדֹנָי יְהוִה:  יַעַן תִּתְּךָ אֶת-לְבָבְךָ, כְּלֵב 
אֱלֹהִים. ezek 28:6

nir cohen

>>> De: TedBro AT aol.com
Is there a pattern where the various speakers (YHWH, Job, Eliphaz, Bildad,
Zophar and Elihu) each use different terms when referring to God? Can we
correlate and map the usages?
Ted Brownstein
 
>>> yohanan.bin.dawidh AT gmail.com writes:
    In Sefer 'Iyyob, why do we see different discriptive pronouns used for
YHWH? The terms אלהים, אלוה and אל, exist, depending on the chapter and who is
speaking, to describe YHWH. The only consistency that exists is when either
the narrorator or YHWH is speaking, and in the instances the term אלהים is
used, but elsewhere, the terms vary.  
>>> Assuming that the events in this narrative actually existed, could this be
due to the different Semitic dialects / tongues that the original participants
spoke and the discriptive pronouns they used to reference the Deity? Could
this be the difference of people who speak Hebrew, Arabic and Syriac having a
conversation about YHWH in modern times?
     
    Regards,
     
    Yohanan bin-Dawidh