Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

On 2/19/2013 1:34 AM, Ishnian wrote:
> BARRY wrote: It was also a translation from the Vulgate, and not from
> the original Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek, so naturally it is going to
> follow *umbrae mortis* (shadow of death). I believe that all earlier
> English translations also are from the Latin.
> ---------------------------------
>
>   ISHINAN: Actually "Shadow of Death" (Ps. xxiii:4, etc.) is Greek skia
> thanatou!
> Ishinan Ishibashi

Actually actually, the *Latin* Vulgate uses *umbrae mortis*, shadow of 
death. This shows us that that the Jews at the time of these 
translations read it as  צֵל + מָוֶת, and not as צַלְמוּת. Why do I say the 
Jews at that time? Because it was Jewish translators who produced the 
LXX and rendered σκιὰ θανάτου, and because Jerome learned his Hebrew 
from Jews contemporary to him.

Bryant pointed out that you may have meant Tyndale rather than Wycliffe, 
but the historic English translations took the versions available to 
them as accurate guides to the Hebrew.

So you can say that the ancients were wrong in their understanding of 
the word, but what evidence do you have that this is the case, besides 
the bare assertion?

--
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
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Bible Translation Magazine
http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog