Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Bryant:

On Fri, Feb 15, 2013 at 7:23 PM, Rev. Bryant J. Williams III <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net> wrote:

Dear List,

 

I have been reviewing the Messianic Psalms 22, 23, 24 very recently. Since these three Psalms are a triad, it puzzles me that while Psalms 22 and 24 prophecy the death and glory of the Messiah Psalm 23 is silent.

 

I have several questions:

 

1.    How does Psalm 23 fit with the prophetic Messianic Pss. 22 & 24?

I didn’t know it is considered Messianic.

If I remember correctly, there are a few verses in the prophets that make mention of God shepherding his people, e.g. Ezekiel 34:15, but I didn’t bookmark those verses, and so don’t remember where they are found right off hand. It is because of these verses among other reasons that I didn’t consider Psalm 23 to be Messianic.

The New Testament parallel is John 10:1–18. But isn’t this a separate issue (that I won’t comment on more)?

 

2.    Does "nephesh" in 23:3 (MT) mean "soul" or "life" or ?

It means “life” but a much broader meaning than in English in which “soul” and “life force” are subsets of its meaning, not separate as in English. 

 

3.    Does "YeShUBeB" (Polel Impf) mean "restore" as traditionally translated or is it closer t o the idea of "to turn, return?"

Interesting question.

There is a verb $BB found in Isaiah 58:12, Jeremiah 50:19, and Ezekiel 39:2. It seems to have the meaning of moving from one’s original place. In the theological sense, to being apostate.

$WBBYM is used three times as an adjective, Jeremiah 3:14, 22, 50:6 referring to plural nouns. It looks as if this use is related to the above. $WBBH thrice in Jeremiah 8:5, 31:22, 49:4.

Other uses of the quadriliteral $WBB are found in Isaiah 47:10, 57:17, Ezekiel 38:8, 39:27. All of these uses seem to be connected with the idea of being in motion from one’s place, even to wandering.

$WBB seems to be treated as a quadriliteral verb, as an infinitive Isaiah 49:5, Micah 2:4, as a participle Ezekiel 39:27, as a verb Psalm 60:1 (3), Ezekiel 38:4. All these still connected to the meaning above.

Now we come to Psalm 23:3a, the last example, and …?? Looking even at the verb in Psalm 23:3b there’s the action of motion, being led. Is the traditional understanding wrong? (Should I stop thinking through my fingers and keyboard?)

What do you-all think?

 

4.    How would David have understood them when he wrote them NOT how they have been understood by the Christian exegetical tradition?

Seeing as it can be read with a contemporary (to David) meaning, is there any evidence that David considered it Messianic?

Could the Christian theological sense be connected to John 10:1–18, and not original to the Hebrew?

 

Thank you,

 

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

Karl W. Randolph.