Biblical Hebrew Forum

[C L <sigebryht AT yahoo.com>]

Dear Isaac,

Thank you for the comments on the punctuation in Zech. 8:3. That is helpful.

I would appreciate hearing from others on the list, as well, regarding this question: particularly with reference to Waltke and O'Connor, and Van der Merwe, et al. (cited in my original post).

Regarding your point #3, that the acts of God represented by שבתי (shabtiy) and ושכנתי (w-shakantiy) are "timeless":

How does this obtain? Compare, for instance the use of וְאָשׁ֣וּב in Zech. 1:3:

כֹּ֤ה אָמַר֙ יְהוָ֣ה צְבָא֔וֹת
שׁ֣וּבוּ אֵלַ֔י
נְאֻ֖ם יְהוָ֣ה צְבָא֑וֹת
וְאָשׁ֣וּב אֲלֵיכֶ֔ם
אָמַ֖ר יְהוָ֥ה צְבָאֽוֹת׃

"Thus says the L-rd of Hosts:
'Return to me (שׁוב imperative),
the Declaration of the L-rd of Hosts,
and I will return to you (waw + 1st person singluar IMPERFECT /שׁוב),'
says the L-rd of Hosts."

The use of וְאָשׁ֣וּב to directly report G-d's speech here is clearly used to denote a FUTURE act because the L-rd's return is predicated upon the condition that the "Fathers" return to Him.

Then, in Zech. 8:3 we see the same verb שׁוב in the direct reported speech of G-d, again in first person, but this time as a perfect verb form. Thus, what was promised in Zech. 1:3 ("I will return") has come to pass in 8:3 ("I have returned"). (For this and other parallels in Zech. 1 and 8, I believe these two chapters form an inclusio around this section, often referred to as "First Zechariah" or "Proto-Zechariah.")

It doesn't seem logically consistent that the 1st-person perfect of שׁוב as the action of G-d would be "timeless" in Zech. 8:3 when the 1st person imperfect of שׁוב is used in Zech 1:3 to denote what appears to be a clearly "time-bound" action of God. (This is not an indictment, Isaac, of your logical prowess personally: I suspect that you may not have been specifically aware of Zech. 1:3 when you responded in reference to 8:3. So, when I say that it is "not logical," I mean this in a general sense that the argument itself fails to account for this additional piece of evidence that was not presented as part of the original question.)

In light of the time-oriented use of שׁוב in Zech. 1:3 to describe divine activity, does it not follow that שׁוב is likewise used in Zech. 8:3 to denote time-oriented activity by G-d?

Cordially,

Chris Lovelace