Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>]

Hi Berel,

On Mon, 18 Jun 2012 11:35:30 -0400, Berel Beyer <berelbeyer AT gmail.com> wrote:
> Hello all,
> 
> I wonder if I could impose upon you for help pointing me in the right
> direction.  I understand that there are people who claim that the
> masoretes intended the mappiq he to be an orthographic distinction
> rather than one of actual pronunciation.  Can anyone point me to an
> article (for a non-expert like myself) that summarizes the argument?

I have seen that claim also, but have never seen any evidence to back
it up.  Until I see such, I think the most natural course is to take
the mappiq at face value, and take it to indicate a pronounced [h] at
the end of a word.

-- 
William Parsons
μη φαινεσθαι, αλλ' ειναι.