Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Berel Beyer <berelbeyer AT gmail.com>]

Hello all,

I wonder if I could impose upon you for help pointing me in the right
direction.  I understand that there are people who claim that the
masoretes intended the mappiq he to be an orthographic distinction
rather than one of actual pronunciation.  Can anyone point me to an
article (for a non-expert like myself) that summarizes the argument?

Many thanks!

Berel Beyer

-- 
Al titen lamuglegim ledake otcha! ~ Ron Weasley