Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Nir cohen - Prof. Mat." <nir AT ccet.ufrn.br>]

karl,

the talmudic, medieval and modern hebrew dialects are all tense-based,
and so is aramaic. it would be more natural to assume an 
aramaic influence on modern hebrew, as opposed to a greek one.

in fact, aramaic and talmudic hebrew admit a one-to-one
correspondence in the phoneme, lexical, grammatical and syntax levels, 
to the extent that i would call talmudic hebrew a word-for-word
transliterated aramaic dialect (you can check it, for example,
on the book of daniel). also, the tensing using past, present, 
future and auxiliary verb hyh/hwh are basically equal. this 
cannot be said about hebrew (or aramaic) vs any european language.

nir cohen

>>> Hence, looking not at the forms but at the actions that underlie the 
>>> forms,
I see the grammar of modern Israeli Hebrew to be a European language
grammar, very different from the grammar of Biblical Hebrew. That is why I
consider modern Israeli Hebrew to be a modern European language.