Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Isaac:

Now that you have given specific examples, the answer is no in both cases
that you presented.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Tue, Mar 22, 2011 at 3:41 AM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

> Take Qohelet 5:4
>
> טוב אשר לא תדר, משתדור ולא תשלם
>
> and replace $E- by ZEH: to have
>
> טוב אשר לא תדר, מזה: תדור ולא תשלם
>
> It appears to me that in many instances V- (VAV HA-XIBUR) stands for the
> latter $E-, for instance, Obadia 1:1
>
> וציר בגוים שלח
>
> that is essentially
>
> שציר בגוים שלח
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>
> On Mar 21, 2011, at 10:47 PM, George Athas wrote:
>
>  Isaac Fried wrote, 'I am afraid you did not pay close attention to what I
>> have written. I
>> have written ZEH: not ZEH.'
>>
>> My mistake then. Care to enlighten us, Isaac?
>>
>>
>> GEORGE ATHAS
>> Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
>> www.moore.edu.au
>
>