Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Olivier Randrianjaka <rev_oli AT hotmail.com>]

Dear list members,
I have got a question on how the expression "אֵ֤שֶׁת זְנוּנִים֙" in Hosea 1:2 
is supposed to mean. Here are some suggestions from commentaries available in 
my PC:


MacIntosh,
A. A. (1997). A critical and exegetical commentary on Hosea (8).
Edinburgh: T&T Clark International: quote:"wife
of promiscuity" arguing that The word
זְנוּנִים is an abstract plural and the phrase may be compared with 
אִישׁ־דָּמִים ‘sanguinary man’ (e.g. 2 Sam 16:7f) and with 
אֵשֶׁת־מִדְוָנִים/מִדְיָנִים ‘a contentious, nagging wife’ (e.g. Prov 21:9; 
25:24; 27:15)" 

Wolff, H. W. (1974). Hosea
: A commentary on the book of the Prophet Hosea. (Hermeneia) P.13:  quote: 
"What kind of woman is meant by “wife of whoredom” (אשׁת זנונים)? It cannot 
simply mean a soliciting prostitute—which would
have to read אִשָּׁה זוֹנָה;  nor is it an intensive
form of זוֹנָה.  As a plural abstract זנונים refers to a personal 
quality, not an activity.The problems are resolved if we observe the other 
usage of זנונים in Hosea; 4:12 and 5:4 denounce the “spirit of whoredom” 
(רוח זנונים) as the spirit of a people fallen away from Yahweh. Should not 
זנונים be strictly considered an abstract plural, insofar as it
describes a personal trait recognizable already before the marriage?
Accordingly, does Yahweh direct Hosea to a woman embued with the spirit of a
faithless people, who is a “worshiper of Baal,”  and thus require Hosea to
marry simply any woman from among rebellious Israel?  This interpretation
would also explain the term “children of whoredom;” this first important
catchword provides the accent that dominates the entire chapter." 

My comments: 
The problem is that the translation "a prostitute woman or wife" is not 
linguistically appropriate since the adjective following the feminine noun 
אִשָּׁה in construct state is actually in masculine plural זנונים which makes 
the above translation impossible. I have found that some translations such as 
"le francais courant": "femme pratiquant la prostitution sacrée" (free trans. 
in engl: woman practicing a sacred prostitution) have escaped from the 
literal translation I cited above. Anyway I think that, theologically (a 
point that I do not want to discuss due to B-Heb rule), conceiving God as 
pushing his prophet to marry a prostitute is not relevant at all. I would 
prefer the translation "woman of prostitution" or "woman practicing a sacred 
prostitution" than the common "prostitute woman" which is not fitting 
linguistically and theologically.   

Your comments are very welcomeOlivier RandrianjakaStudent at MHS, 
Stavanger,Norway