Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Hello Nir:

If only you could give as simple and reasonable an explanation for the
reason for the existence of yiqtol and qatal verb forms in the masoretic
text ... :)

regards,

fred burlingame

On Mon, Jan 31, 2011 at 10:36 PM, Nir cohen - Prof. Mat.
<nir AT ccet.ufrn.br>wrote:

> *here, unlike fred's example, the scribe had to choose between two
> different nikuds for the same exact word:
> the neutral KAL and the more emphatic PIEL.   i figure the scribe's logic
> was this:
>
> in isaiah, god breaks. using PIEL might imply that god needed to make an
> effort, so kal was used.
>
> in exodus, the hail breaks the trees. to make the breaking effect more
> dramatic, the more emphatic
> piel was used.
>
> nir cohen
>
> On Mon, 31 Jan 2011 22:35:57 -0500, Isaac Fried wrote*
>  > You may equally well ask Why does the masoretic text employ the form
> $ABAR in Isaiah 14:5, but the form $IBER in Ex. 9:25? Do they differ in
> meaning? The answer to this is, methinks, not maybe, but an unequivocal no.
> >
> > Isaac Fried, Boston University
> >
> > On Jan 31, 2011, at 6:24 PM, fred burlingame wrote:
>
>
> > I can sympathize with the physician and the attorney, since the future
> > cannot be known with certainty. But here, we are dealing with past
> events,
> > the 1000 year old masoretic text. And yet no one appears willing to say:
> > "the masoretic text employs two verb forms "yiqtol" and "qatal," rather
> than
> > one verb form, for the following reason:  ...... "
> >
> > It seems to me the reason for it (two, versus one, verb forms), is
> > susceptible to both identification and articulation in a sentence or
> two.
> >
> >
>
>
>
>
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