Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

Hello Isaac:

Thanks for your comments.

It appears the issue is far from resolved ....

regards,

fred burlingame

On Mon, Jan 31, 2011 at 9:35 PM, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:

> You may equally well ask Why does the masoretic text employ the form $ABAR
> in Isaiah 14:5, but the form $IBER in Ex. 9:25? Do they differ in meaning?
> The answer to this is, methinks, not maybe, but an unequivocal no.
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
>  On Jan 31, 2011, at 6:24 PM, fred burlingame wrote:
>
>  I can sympathize with the physician and the attorney, since the future
>
> cannot be known with certainty. But here, we are dealing with past events,
>
> the 1000 year old masoretic text. And yet no one appears willing to say:
>
> "the masoretic text employs two verb forms "yiqtol" and "qatal," rather
> than
>
> one verb form, for the following reason:  ...... "
>
>
> It seems to me the reason for it (two, versus one, verb forms), is
>
> susceptible to both identification and articulation in a sentence or two.
>
>
>
>