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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
- To: jimstinehart AT aol.com
- Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any reason?
- Date: Mon, 17 Jan 2011 07:06:06 +0100
Hi, list.
We have in Ex 18:1 noun XOT"N, father-in-law.
We have in 1Sa 18:18 XFTFN, son-in-law or daughter's husband.
It seems clear that both nouns are related: their consonants are the same
and appear in the same order....
I'm wondering whether there is a good reason for this:
Pattern of XOT"N is that of Qal Participle while pattern of XFTFN is that of
many Hebrew nouns (such as DFBFR, word (Gn 18:14) or ZFKFR, male in Gn
1:27).
Would the reverse equally have been possible?
Namely, that XOT"N would mean daughter's husband and XFTFN would mean
father-in-law...
Is there any reason for things having gone the way they have gone and not
the reverse way?
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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-
Re: [b-hebrew] Any reason?,
Pere Porta, 01/17/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Any reason?, Jack Kilmon, 01/17/2011
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