Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Randall:

On Tue, Dec 14, 2010 at 9:55 AM, Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com> wrote:

> why was there a whole thread devoted to Song 1.12
>

Because your proposed answer below makes no sense, as far as we understand
it.


> and trying to read hmlk as a verbal NOUN?
>

That part (verbal noun) doesn’t make sense to me either.


> A verbal noun phrase would not have needed/
> wanted the sh-.
>

The phrase in Biblical Hebrew עד אשר (more colloquially -עד ש ) is always
followed either by a verbal phrase (once as a pronoun followed by a
participle, other times a qatal or yiqtol with sometimes an added adverb כה,
אם or לא to modify the verb), or followed by the result of a verb earlier in
the sentence, without a definite article.

>
> why not recognize that
> sh- (//asher) introduces clauses
> and that here you have a 'verbless clause'?
>
> which brings one back to the simple ha-melex.
>

OK, how’d you translate the verse?

>
>
> --
> Randall Buth, PhD
> www.biblicalulpan.org
> randallbuth AT gmail.com
> Biblical Language Center
> Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life
>
> Karl W. Randolph.