Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Then, this -HEN has to do, in your view, with the 3rd person plural feminine
personal pronoun?

If so, what does this -HEN add to the basic meaning of (D?


Pere Porta

2010/12/10 Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>

> You are right! I also think that ADEY is plural. Why? because it appears to
> me that this tsere is a double xirik for a doubly truncated HIY) ( היא ),
> thus:
> עדי = עד-היא-היא
> which, I think, is an old plural form, before the addition of M to make HEM
> ( הם ).
> In Eccl. 4:2-3 ADENAH is obviously AD-HENAH ( עד-הנה ). In verse 3 it is
> ADEN = AD-HEN.
>
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
>
> On Dec 10, 2010, at 1:47 AM, Pere Porta wrote
>
>
> In Nm 24:20 we have (DY, a variant of (D: in some way we could say that
>> this is the plural construct of the basic (D (until, up to).
>> But in Ecc 4:3 we find (DN, hitherto, still, which is usually taken for a
>> variant of (D as well.
>>
>> Regarding the final N of this word, what would this N be?
>>
>> It does not seem to be in any relation with the -N suffix of the plural
>> feminine (look for instance at 1Sa 20:3: MUTFN)
>>
>>
>> --
>> Pere Porta
>>
>>
>


-- 
Pere Porta