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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Simple Pronunciation Question...

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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

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  • From: "Arnaud Fournet" <fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>
  • To: "Kevin Riley" <klriley AT alphalink.com.au>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Simple Pronunciation Question...
  • Date: Wed, 17 Nov 2010 09:19:15 +0100


----- Original Message ----- From: "Kevin Riley" <klriley AT alphalink.com.au>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, November 17, 2010 1:30 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Simple Pronunciation Question...


Karl,

Something that has puzzled me for a while: what evidence do you have that Hebrew - or any other ancient language - had a one-to-one correspondence between letter and sound? Does not the evidence from most languages point the other way?

Kevin Riley

***

In general, writing at its beginning is defective: it does not write everything that is actually uttered.
Then it tends to become exhaustive,
Afterwards it tends to become orthographic: a lot of signs are in fact useless and more or less disconnected with speech.

It seems to me that Ancient Hebrew is closer to defective than exhaustive.
One-to-one seems fairly reasonable in that case.

Arnaud Fournet




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