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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
- To: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
- Cc: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] is it logical?
- Date: Tue, 2 Nov 2010 07:27:12 +0100
Hi, folks.
At comparing 'abinu' (Gn19:31) with 'abihem' (Gn 37:4)... I remark that the
first has qamats under the aleph while the latter has hatef patah.
Is there a good reason for this? Should not there be either qamats or hatef
patah in both cases?
I thought of the different position of the stress: paroxytone (abinu) versus
oxytone (abihem).... But would this be a sufficient reason for the
different vowel?
Pere Porta
-
Re: [b-hebrew] is it logical?,
Pere Porta, 11/02/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] is it logical?, George Athas, 11/02/2010
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