Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

The thing is that a Hebrew word does not have an "etymology", only a  
root. As I see it a Hebrew word (sans attached prepositions) consists  
only of a root + pronouns (identity markers). In a verb the markers  
refer to the actors, while in a noun they refer to the named thing  
having the property described by the root.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Sep 15, 2010, at 1:48 AM, Randall Buth wrote:

> For example, one does not call "publicize'"either a 'synonym' or
> an 'etymology' of the English word "public". Nevertheless, the
> two words are related. Studying the history of how public and
> publicize developed within English and from Latin is
> called 'etymology' the study of the origin/source of a word/s. The
> specific development of 'publicize' from 'public' within English is
> called 'derivational morphology'. The forms "[She] publicized"
> and "publicizes" are called inflectional morphology.