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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology

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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology
  • Date: Wed, 15 Sep 2010 08:09:02 -0400

The thing is that a Hebrew word does not have an "etymology", only a root. As I see it a Hebrew word (sans attached prepositions) consists only of a root + pronouns (identity markers). In a verb the markers refer to the actors, while in a noun they refer to the named thing having the property described by the root.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Sep 15, 2010, at 1:48 AM, Randall Buth wrote:

For example, one does not call "publicize'"either a 'synonym' or
an 'etymology' of the English word "public". Nevertheless, the
two words are related. Studying the history of how public and
publicize developed within English and from Latin is
called 'etymology' the study of the origin/source of a word/s. The
specific development of 'publicize' from 'public' within English is
called 'derivational morphology'. The forms "[She] publicized"
and "publicizes" are called inflectional morphology.





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