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[b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology
- From: Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>
- To: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: [b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology
- Date: Wed, 15 Sep 2010 08:48:30 +0300
There was a thread that ws named 'inflection or synonym'. The
name was inappropriately chosen because the issue is one that
already has an accepted name in general linguistics
inflectional versus derivational morphology.
For example, one does not call "publicize'"either a 'synonym' or
an 'etymology' of the English word "public". Nevertheless, the
two words are related. Studying the history of how public and
publicize developed within English and from Latin is
called 'etymology' the study of the origin/source of a word/s. The
specific development of 'publicize' from 'public' within English is
called 'derivational morphology'. The forms "[She] publicized"
and "publicizes" are called inflectional morphology.
I do not consider the last thread 'inflection or synonym' to have
been a good-faith discussion. Mistakes were not acknowledged,
they were even repeated without justification,
and many times the direct implication of questions was avoided
so as to unnecessarily prolong the discussion (from my
perspective).
So I decline to spend more energy in a situation where
mistakes are not acknowledged and the learning of points along the
way seems to be refused.
Someone else may build this thread as they see fit, hopefully with
correct examples and with a more appropriate title.
Thank you
Randall Buth
--
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
randallbuth AT gmail.com
Biblical Language Center
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-
[b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology,
Randall Buth, 09/15/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] inflectional versus derivational morphology, Isaac Fried, 09/15/2010
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