Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Adr1anpatterson AT aol.com]

Hello fellow fans of Hebrew,
 
I am a self taught student of Hebrew so have no mentor to whom I can  
address my questions. Of late I've been following your conversations with  
interest and feel sure you can shed some light on something that puzzles me  
for a 
while.
 
In Psalm 29 the phrase 'voice of the Lord' is used 7  times to translate 
the separate words Col Yhwh (excuse my transliteration!)  - in verses 3, 4b, 
5, 8 and 9. But in verses 4a and 7  col and Yhwh  are joined with a maqqef. 
Why is a maqqef used on two occasions but not the  other 5? and is there any 
difference in the translation?
 
I look forward to your comments with great interest.
 
Many thanks
 
Adrian Patterson
(N Wales UK)