Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>]

Dear Doug,

The name was known and used (pronounced) in everyday speech in the 
days of the first temple (cf. the Lakish letters). It was also used 
in the days of the second temple, but sometime during this time the 
superstition arose that caused some groups not to use the name. There 
is evidence that the Qumran people did not use the name, and there is 
evidence that the Pharisees and Morning-bathers continued to use it. 
Exactly when different groups stopped using (pronouncing) the name is 
unknown. Even as late as the first part of the first century C.E. 
the name may be used by some; evidence to the contrary is lacking.

The name of God was known in the past, and we still know that the 
only personal name of the creator is expressed by the four consonants 
YHWH. What we do not know is which vowels were used when it was 
pronounced and their timbre. But that is the same with other ancient 
Hebrew names as well. The Masoretes vocalized these other names, and 
their system of vowels seems to be close to the system used by those 
who wrote the DSS. But still we cannot know exactly how these proper 
names were pronounced. For example, there is evidence that the vowel 
shewa used by the Masoretes was pronounced as an "a"-sound and not an 
"e"-sound. The lack of knowledge of how a Hebrew name exactly was 
pronounced, is no argument in favor of substituting the name with 
another word, and the same is true with the name of God-it is as yet 
known!

I am not sure what you mean by your question about blaspheming. But 
an account of how this could occur is found in Leviticus 24:15,16 
(NIV). The key words here are "curses his God" and "blasphemes the 
name of the LORD (YHWH), which seem to be parallel phrases. Any wrong 
and unworthy use of the name of God, both in the past and in the 
present is the same as blaspheming the name.

Personally I would say that when the NIV substitutes YHWH with "the 
LORD," the translators are then blaspheming the name. There are two 
reasons for my bold claim, 1) the translators have violated a 
fundamental rule of translation because of their own theological 
views, and 2) the unique identification that only can be used for the 
creator of the universe-his personal name YHWH-is taken away and 
concealed, and an appellative, which can refer to many different 
persons, is used instead. Thus, an important part of the dignity and 
uniqueness of God i taken away.

BTW, Neither in the days of the first temple nor the second temple is 
there any evidence that to pronounce the name was the same as to 
blaspheme it. All passages in the Tanakh dealing with the name tell 
that it should be used (pronounced); some even say that the name 
always should be used.


Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo



> Hi Rolf , do we have any consensus as to what does constitute 
> blasheming the name of the Lord. I assume that we agree that the 
> name is as yet unknown , as such how could we blaspheme such name.
>
> doug belot.