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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
- To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?
- Date: Sun, 7 Mar 2010 16:25:27 -0800
Kevin:
On Sat, Mar 6, 2010 at 5:11 PM, Kevin Riley <klriley100 AT gmail.com> wrote:
>
> I am somewhat puzzled by how you conclude that evidence of OU being used to
> represent /w/ is somehow evidence against IAOUE representing YaHWeH.
>
> Kevin Riley
>
> No, my question is: did the Greeks, who had no ‘w’ phoneme, perceive a ‘w’
as a ‘ou’ diphthong? If so, then this is an argument against the
pronunciation of “YaHWeH”, rather an argument for a trisyllabic “YaHoWeH”.
Even if we assume that ‘ou’ referred to a ‘oo’ (as in ‘pool’) vowel, we
still come out with three syllables.
So my original conclusion, that the pronunciation of YHWH was most like not
‘Yahweh’, with a close to 100% certainty, still stands.
Karl W. Randolph.
-
[b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?,
Garth Grenache, 03/06/2010
-
Message not available
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?,
Kevin Riley, 03/06/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?, K Randolph, 03/07/2010
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?,
Kevin Riley, 03/06/2010
-
Message not available
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?,
Garth Grenache, 03/10/2010
- Re: [b-hebrew] Must IAOUE represent 3+ syllables?, K Randolph, 03/11/2010
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