Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Garth Grenache <garthgrenache AT hotmail.com>]

Dear all,

*Can Y:ho- be derived from prefixing Yahwe(h)- to another word?*

I say that it cannot be done not by regular pronunciation changes that are 
found to have occurred elsewhere in Hebrew's history.

It is for this reason that I suppose most who attempt to derive Y:ho- from 
Yahwe(h) do so by first cutting it short to Yahw and then prefixing it.  Then 
they guess that the vowel could jump a place Yahw- > Yhaw-, and the rest is 
easy.  I haven't found this vowel jump occurring elsewhere in Hebrew, and 
don't see why people would prefix only part of the Name as is claimed by this 
method.

Therefore my questions are simple:

Can anyone here get a prefixed Yahwe(h)- to end up as Y:ho- by regular 
pronunciation changes that are attested elsewhere in Hebrew's history?If not, 
can anyone justify the apparently arbitrary truncation of YHWH to Yahw, and 
demonstrate that Yahw- would become Y:ho- by regular pronunciation changes 
found in Hebrew's history?
-
Dave Donnelly and I have discussed this for a while now.  I can demonstrate 
that Yahwa- would become Y:ho- in the same way that 'achwatu became 'achot-.  

"Yahwa" is the 5-phoneme pronunciation that I suggest is original for YHWH.

Kind regards,
Garth.

                                          
_________________________________________________________________
Find a great deal on your next car. Get straight to the Point.
http://clk.atdmt.com/NMN/go/157637060/direct/01/